Matthew 24:35 - "Heaven and earth": More evidence
Summary:
Jesus said "HEAVEN AND EARTH will-pass-away" (Matthew 24:35).
You can find the original article regarding this passage giving the main pieces of evidence to consider for this verse here:
Matthew 24:35 - Heaven and earth will pass away (1st century imminence & fulfillment?):
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You can find more evidence below:
1st century audience & imminence in Matthew 24?
The same Greek words that are used in the various passages will be CAPITALIZED.
Jesus addressed His 1st century disciples in Matthew 24:33-35 by saying: "So also YOU — when YOU-see all these (things), YOU know that it-is near, at (the) doors. Truly I-say (to) you that this generation by-no-means WILL-PASS-AWAY until all these (things) take-place. Heaven and earth WILL-PASS-AWAY, BUT My words by-no-means WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:34-35).
There may have been a literary structure used between "this generation by-no-means WILL-PASS-AWAY until all these (things) take-place" (Matthew 24:34) and "Heaven and earth WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:35). Both seem to be set in contrast with the following: "BUT My words by-no-means WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:35).
Could this mean both "this generation" (Matthew 24:34) that "WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:34) and "Heaven and earth WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:35) could happen around the same time frame?
For more information on "this generation" (Matthew 24:34) that "WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:34):
1st century audience & imminence in Matthew 24 & 2 Peter in connection with His coming [parousia]?
Jesus said: "HEAVEN and EARTH WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:35). Jesus then said in the next verse: "But no-one knows about THAT day and hour". The expression "THAT day and hour" (Matthew 24:36) would have referred to THAT day and hour in which there would be His "COMING" (Matthew 24:37), as Jesus explained in the very next verse what He meant by "THAT day and hour" (Matthew 24:36) using the conjunction "FOR", saying: "FOR just-as the days (of) Noah (were), so will-be THE COMING (of) THE SON (of) MAN" (Matthew 24:37).
This specific Greek word for "COMING [parousia 3952 in Greek]" used in Matthew 24:37 was only used 1 time earlier in Matthew 24 to indicate "THE COMING [parousia 3952 in Greek] (of) THE SON (of) MAN" (Matthew 24:27). Jesus would have specified the general timing and signs to occur before this would happen, saying 6 verses later to His 1st century disciples that "when YOU-see all these (things), YOU know that (it) is NEAR, at (the) doors. Truly I-say (to) YOU that this generation by-no-means will-pass-away until all these (things) take-place" (Matthew 24:33-34).
PETER was among the 1st century disciples who heard what Jesus said in Matthew 24, including the saying that "HEAVEN and EARTH WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:35). In the parallel account to Matthew 24 found in Mark, it is written about Jesus that "PETER and James and John and Andrew were-questioning Him privately" (Mark 13:3-4, parallel to Matthew 24:3).
The same "PETER" (2 Peter 1:1) wrote later in the 1st century to his audience that "the HEAVENS WILL-PASS-AWAY" (2 Peter 3:10). Peter also wrote about Jesus and "the PROMISE (of) His COMING [parousia 3952 in Greek]" (2 Peter 3:4) and added that "IN-ACCORDANCE-WITH HIS PROMISE we-are-looking-for new HEAVENS and (a) new EARTH" (2 Peter 3:13). So here the new HEAVENS and new EARTH would be in accordance with the PROMISE of the COMING [parousia 3952 in Greek] of Jesus.
Here is a summary illustrating that:
The mentions of the "COMING" [parousia 3952 in Greek] of the Lord in several biblical passages could have been apprehended as imminent in the 1st century.
For more information:
1st century imminence in the Bible of the coming (parousia) of the Lord?
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1st century audience & imminence in Matthew 24 & Revelation 21 in correlation with de-creation language?
Jesus said: "HEAVEN and EARTH WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:35).
A few verses earlier, Jesus used decreation language, which may be correlated in some way to heaven and earth passing away.
Jesus said 6 verses earlier: "the SUN will-be-darkened, and the MOON will not give its light, and the stars will-fall from the heaven, and the powers (of) the heavens will-be-shaken" (Matthew 24:29).
Jesus then addressed 4 verses later His 1st century disciples, saying to them: "when YOU-see all these (things), YOU know that (it) is NEAR, at (the) doors. Truly I-say (to) YOU that this generation by-no-means will-pass-away until all these (things) take-place" (Matthew 24:33-34).
In Revelation it is written: "I-saw (a) new HEAVEN and (a) new EARTH, for the first HEAVEN and the first EARTH passed-away" (Revelation 21:1).
This passage in Revelation 21 also mentions that "the city has no need (of) the SUN nor the MOON, in-order-that they-might-shine" (Revelation 21:23). This language is similar to what Jesus said in Matthew 24:29: "the SUN will-be-darkened, and the MOON will not give its light". The Greek word for "MOON" (seléné 4582 in Greek) is only used 3 times in all the Gospels, only in Matthew 24:29 and in its parallel accounts in Mark 13:24 & Luke 21:25. This may indicate a correlation between the events described in Matthew 24:29 and heaven and earth passing away.
Here is a summary illustrated:
For more similarities between Matthew 24 & Revelation 21:
1st century audience in 2 Peter 3 of the day of the Lord coming like a thief linked with Matthew 24:43-44?
"PETER" (2 Peter 1:1) wrote in the 1st century to his audience that "(THE) DAY (OF THE) LORD will-come LIKE (a) THIEF — in which THE HEAVENS WILL-PASS-AWAY" (2 Peter 3:10).
Peter mentioned that the DAY of the LORD in which "THE HEAVENS WILL-PASS-AWAY" (2 Peter 3:10) "will-come LIKE (a) THIEF" (2 Peter 3:10).
This is similar to a passage found 7 verses after that Jesus said that "HEAVEN and EARTH WILL-PASS-AWAY" (Matthew 24:35) in which Jesus added: "you-do not know (on) which DAY your LORD is-coming. And you know that (saying), that if the house-master had-known (on) which watch the THIEF was-coming, he-would-have-kept-watch" (Matthew 24:42-43). Jesus then added in the very next verse, when addressing His 1st century audience (among whom Peter was a part of): "For this reason YOU also be prepared (ones)" (Matthew 24:44).
Here is a summary illustrated:
For more information on Matthew 24:43-44:
Matthew 24:43-44 - Coming like a thief (1st century historical fulfillment?):
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1st century imminence in 2 Peter 3 of the day of the Lord?
"PETER" (2 Peter 1:1) wrote in the 1st century to his audience that "(THE) DAY (OF THE) LORD will-come LIKE (a) THIEF — in which THE HEAVENS WILL-PASS-AWAY" (2 Peter 3:10).
Here Peter correlated the "DAY (OF THE) LORD" (2 Peter 3:10) with "THE HEAVENS WILL-PASS-AWAY" (2 Peter 3:10).
The mentions of the DAY of the LORD in several biblical passages could have been apprehended as imminent in the 1st century. For more details:
1st century imminence in the Bible of the day of the Lord?
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The temple:
Jesus mentioned in Matthew 24 the destruction of the temple:
Jesus mentioned the destruction of the temple earlier in Matthew 24 before mentioning later that "HEAVEN and EARTH will-pass-away" (Matthew 24:35), as after "having-departed from the temple" (Matthew 24:1), the 1st century disciples of Jesus came to Jesus to show Him "the buildings (of) the temple" (Matthew 24:1). The disciples were showing the buildings of the temple of Jerusalem that was standing there in the 1st century, as Jesus just also departed from it. In response, Jesus said to them: "Do-YOU-SEE all these (things)? Truly I-say (to) you — (a) stone upon (a) stone by-no-means will-be-left here which will not be-torn-down" (Matthew 24:2).
For more information on the destruction of the temple around AD 70:
Matthew 24:1-2 - Not a stone left on another (1st century historical fulfillment?):
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Correlation in Revelation 21 with heaven and earth shaken and the destruction of Jerusalem and its temple?
Jesus said in the 1st century: "HEAVEN and EARTH will-pass-away" (Matthew 24:35).
It is written in Revelation later in the 1st century about "(The) revelation (of) Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to-show His slaves (the things) which must take-place in quickness" (Revelation 1:1). This "revelation" (Revelation 1:1) is showing "(the things) which must take-place in quickness" (Revelation 1:1).
In Revelation, at a later chapter, it is written: "I-saw (a) new HEAVEN and (a) new EARTH, for the first HEAVEN and the first EARTH passed-away" (Revelation 21:1).
This passage in Revelation 21 also mentions "(the) new Jerusalem" (Revelation 21:2) and "I-did not see (a) temple in it" (Revelation 21:22). In the 1st century, both Jerusalem and its temple were destroyed around AD 70.
For more similarities between Matthew 24 & Revelation 21:
Early Jewish author on heaven and earth shaken in correlation with the destruction of the temple:
Jesus said in the 1st century: "HEAVEN and EARTH will-pass-away" (Matthew 24:35).
The author of Hebrews quoted Haggai 2:6, writing: "I WILL-SHAKE once more not only the EARTH, but also the HEAVEN”. And the (phrase) “once more” indicates the REMOVAL (of) the (things) BEING-SHAKEN" (Hebrews 12:26-27).
An early Jewish Rabbi had for opinion that the verse in Haggai 2:6 indicating that heaven and earth would be shaken could be interpreted as happening in correlation with the destruction of the temple. This would even have referred to the destruction of the temple that was destroyed in Jerusalem around AD 70.
It is written in "Sanhedrin":
(97b): "the opinion of Rabbi Akiva, who would interpret the verse: “Yet once, it is a little while, and I will shake the heavens and the earth” (Haggai 2:6), to mean that the redemption would transpire soon after the destruction of the Temple."
The temple being a representation of heaven and earth?
In the Bible, the temple could have been understood as a representation of heaven and earth.
For example: "And He built His SANCTUARY LIKE HIGH PLACES, LIKE THE EARTH He has founded" (Psalms 78:69 (Masoretic)).
When building the tabernacle, Moses was given instructions so as to do everything according to a copy and shadow of HEAVENLY things: "if He-were on EARTH He-would not-even be (a) priest — (there) being the (ones) offering the gifts according-to (the) Law, who are-serving (a) COPY and (a) SHADOW (of) the HEAVENLY (things), just-as Moses has-been-warned, being-about to-complete THE TABERNACLE: for “See”, He-says, “(that) you-make everything according-to the pattern having-been-shown (to) you on the mountain”." (Hebrews 8:4-5).
1 chapter later in Hebrews this is again attested: "Christ did not enter into (the) HOLIES made-by(-human)-hands — COPIES (of) the TRUE (things) — but into HEAVEN itself, now to-appear (in) the presence (of) God for us. Nor (did He enter) in-order-that He-might-offer Himself often — as-indeed the high-priest enters into THE HOLIES yearly with (the) blood belonging-to-another" (Hebrews 9:24-25).
The temple being a representation of the universe in an early Jewish writing?
The 1st century historian Josephus recorded that things liked to the temple of Jerusalem were understood to be an imitation and representation of the universe.
The 1st century historian Josephus wrote in "Antiquities of the Jews":
(3.180): "if any one do but consider the fabric of the tabernacle, and take a view of the garments of the high priest, and of those vessels which we make use of in our sacred ministration, he will find that our legislator was a divine man, and that we are unjustly reproached by others; for if any one do without prejudice, and with judgment, look upon these things, he will find they were every one made in way of imitation and representation of the universe."
This is significant because the same author also recorded how the same temple was destroyed by the Romans in the 1st century around AD 70.
Furthermore the same author mentioned the tabernacle as being "an imitation of the system of the world", mentioning "heaven" and the "land" (or earth).
The 1st century historian Josephus wrote in "Antiquities of the Jews":
(3.181): "When Moses distinguished the tabernacle into three parts, and allowed two of them to the priests, as a place accessible and common, he denoted the land and the sea, these being of general access to all; but he set apart the third division for God, because heaven is inaccessible to men"
(3.123): "this proportion of the measures of the tabernacle proved to be an imitation of the system of the world; for that third part thereof which was within the four pillars, to which the priests were not admitted, is, as it were, a heaven peculiar to God. But the space of the twenty cubits, is, as it were, sea and land, on which men live, and so this part is peculiar to the priests only."
Josephus here mentioned also the "sea", alongside "heaven" and the "land" (of earth). In Revelation, the "sea" is mentioned in connection with heaven and earth passing away, as it is written: "the first HEAVEN and the first EARTH passed-away. And there-is no-longer (a) SEA" (Revelation 21:1).
The old covenant:
Correlation between the terms "heaven and earth" and the establishment of the old covenant?
HEAVEN and EARTH can be used in a symbolic sense to mean a political, social or religious order of a people.
For example: "attend, O HEAVEN, and I will speak; and let the EARTH be hearing the words out of my mouth" (Deuteronomy 32:1).
Another example: "be hearing, O HEAVEN, and pay close attention, O EARTH; for the LORD spoke, (saying), “I fathered and lifted up sons, but they rejected Me" (Isaiah 1:2).
Another example: "draw near, O nations; and hear, O princes; hear, O EARTH, and the [ones] in it; the inhabited EARTH, and the people in it!" (Isaiah 34:1).
Another example: "the HEAVEN is amazed at this, and very greatly shuddered with fear at (this),” says the LORD" (Jeremiah 2:12).
Another example: "Hear, O EARTH; behold, I bring evil (things) upon this people, the fruit of their turning back; for they did not pay close attention to My words, and they rejected My Law" (Jeremiah 6:19).
Another example: "then the HEAVENS and the EARTH, and all that is in them, shall shout for Babylon. For the plunderers shall come to her from the north, a statement of YHWH" (Jeremiah 51:48 - Masoretic).
When God chose Israel to be His people, the HEAVENS and the EARTH were said to be planted: "I have put My words in Your mouth, and covered you in the shade of My hand, to plant the HEAVENS and found the EARTH, and to say to Zion, You are My people" (Isaiah 51:16 - Masoretic).
Similarities in language in Revelation 21 with the old and new covenant?
Jesus said in the 1st century: "HEAVEN and EARTH will-pass-away" (Matthew 24:35).
It is written in Revelation later in the 1st century about "(The) revelation (of) Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to-show His slaves (the things) which must take-place in quickness" (Revelation 1:1). This "revelation" (Revelation 1:1) is showing "(the things) which must take-place in quickness" (Revelation 1:1).
In Revelation, at a later chapter, it is written: "I-saw (a) NEW HEAVEN and (a) NEW EARTH, for the FIRST HEAVEN and the FIRST EARTH passed-away" (Revelation 21:1). Here it is mentioned specifically that the "FIRST heaven and the FIRST earth passed-away" (Revelation 21:1) in contrast with the "NEW heaven and (a) NEW earth" (Revelation 21:1).
This language of "FIRST" and "NEW" is similar to the language used to describe the old and new covenant.
It is written in Hebrews in the 1st century in one passage about "the FIRST covenant" (Hebrews 9:15) and the "NEW covenant" (Hebrews 9:15).
Furthermore, this passage in Revelation 21 also mentions "(the) NEW Jerusalem" (Revelation 21:2).
In Galatians 4, Paul demonstrates a correspondence between the Jerusalem from above (which would be the NEW Jerusalem) and the new covenant, as he wrote: "it-has-been-written that Abraham had two sons — one out-of the slave-woman and one out-of the free (woman). But the (one) out-of the slave-woman has-been-born according-to (the) flesh, and the (one) out-of the free (woman) through (the) promise — which (things) are being-allegorized, for these (women) are TWO COVENANTS. ONE (is) from Mount Sinai, bearing (children) for slavery, which is Hagar (now Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia). And SHE-CORRESPONDS (TO) THE PRESENT JERUSALEM, for she-is-(a)-slave with her children. BUT THE JERUSALEM ABOVE is free — which is (the) mother (of) us" (Galatians 4:22-26).
The old covenant near disappearance in Hebrews 8?
It is written in Hebrews in the 1st century in one passage about "the FIRST covenant" (Hebrews 9:15) and the "NEW covenant" (Hebrews 9:15).
One chapter earlier, when writing about the "NEW covenant" (Hebrews 8:8), it is written: "In (that He) says “NEW”, He-has-made-OLD the FIRST. And the (thing) BECOMING-OLD and GROWING-AGED (is) near disappearance" (Hebrews 8:13). The FIRST covenant here was described as the OLD covenant.
This old covenant was said at that time to be a "(thing) BECOMING-OLD and GROWING-AGED" (Hebrews 8:13) and so it was described to be "NEAR disappearance" (Hebrews 8:13). It simply did not yet completely disappear at that time, but that was "NEAR" (Hebrews 8:13).
Early Christian author on the sign of God divorcing Jerusalem around AD 70 when Jerusalem was destroyed
An early Christian author would have seen the destruction of Jerusalem around AD 70 as a sign that God divorced her. The notion of God being married can be used as God making a covenant with a people.
In the 3th century, a Christian author named Origen wrote in "Commentary on the Gospel according to Matthew":
Book 2. sec. 19: "Therefore he, also, having separated from her, married, so to speak, another, having given into the hands of the former the bill of divorcement; wherefore they can no longer do the things enjoined on them by the law, because of the bill of divorcement. And a sign that she has received the bill of divorcement is this, that Jerusalem was destroyed along with what they called the sanctuary of the things in it which were believed to be holy, and with the altar of burnt offerings, and all the worship associated with it... And what was more unseemly than the fact, that they all said in His case, "Crucify Him, crucify Him," and "Away with such a fellow from the earth"? And can this be freed from the charge of unseemliness, "His blood be upon us, and upon our children"? Wherefore, when He was avenged, Jerusalem was compassed with armies, and its desolation was near, and their house was taken away from it, and "the daughter of Zion was left as a booth in a vineyard, and as a lodge in a garden of cucumbers, and as a besieged city." And, about the same time, I think, the husband wrote out a bill of divorcement to his former wife, and gave it into her hands, and sent her away from his own house, and the bond of her who came from the Gentiles has been cancelled about which the Apostle Says, "Having blotted out the bond written in ordinances, which was contrary to us, and He hath taken it out of the way, nailing it to the cross;" for Paul also and others became proselytes of Israel for her who came from the Gentiles."
The Law (of Moses):
Correlation between "heaven and earth" passing away and the law (of Moses) passing away?
Jesus said: "truly I-say (to) you, until HEAVEN and EARTH PASS-AWAY, one iota or one stroke by-no-means WILL-PASS-AWAY FROM THE LAW until all (things) take-place" (Matthew 5:18). Jesus may have correlated the LAW (of Moses) passing away with HEAVEN and EARTH passing away.
The Law of Moses was also given in correlation with the old covenant.
Early Christian author on the service of the law (of Moses) passing away when the land (of Israel) was destroyed:
An early Christian author wrote that when the land (of Israel) was destroyed (referring to how the land of Israel was destroyed around AD 70), the service of the law (of Moses) had been abolished.
Around the 4th century, a Christian author named Athanasius wrote in "Letters":
(Letter VI): "Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by the prophet: “I will take away from them the voice of joy and the voice of gladness, the voice of the bridegroom and the voice of the bride, the scent of myrrh, and the light of a lamp, and the whole land shall be destroyed” [Jer. 25:10]. For the whole service of the law has been abolished from them, and henceforth and forever they remain without a feast."
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