Matthew 24:36 (1st century understanding & imminence?)
Matthew 24:35 - Heaven and earth will pass away (1st century imminence & fulfillment?):Click here Matthew 24:36
Matthew 24:36 & Mark 13:33 - When the time is (1st century imminence & historical fulfillment?):
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Matthew 24:37-39 - Just as the days of Noah & the flood (1st century historical fulfillment?):
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Matthew 24:37-39 & Luke 17:28-29 - Just as the days of Lot & Sodom it rained fire (1st century historical fulfillment?):
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Matthew 24:36: "“But no-one knows about that day and hour — not-even the angels (in) the heavens, nor the Son — except the Father alone."
The same Greek words that are used in the various passages will be CAPITALIZED.
That day and hour... in which the Son of Man is coming?
Jesus said in Matthew 24:36: "But no-one KNOWS about that DAY and HOUR".
Jesus explained in the very next verse what He meant by "that DAY and HOUR" (Matthew 24:36) using the conjunction "FOR", saying: "FOR just-as the days (of) Noah (were), so will-be THE COMING (of) the Son (of) Man" (Matthew 24:37). Jesus would have referred to "that DAY and HOUR" (Matthew 24:36) in which there would be His "COMING" (Matthew 24:37).
Jesus even further clarified 5 verses later, saying: "you-do not KNOW (on) which DAY your Lord IS-COMING" (Matthew 24:42).
And again 2 verses later: "the Son (of) Man IS-COMING (at an) HOUR which you-do not expect" (Matthew 24:44).
And again 6 verses later: "the lord (of) that slave WILL-COME on (a) DAY which he-does not expect, and at (an) HOUR which he-does not KNOW" (Matthew 24:50).
The same Greek words for "THE SON (of) MAN IS-COMING" (Matthew 24:44) are used earlier in Matthew 24:30 in which it is written about "THE SON (of) MAN COMING on the clouds" (Matthew 24:30).
Not even the angels nor the Son know, but the Father alone?
Jesus said in Matthew 24:36: "But no-one knows about that day and hour — not-even the ANGELS (in) the HEAVENS, nor the SON — except the Father alone".
Jesus used similar words 6 verses earlier when He talked in Matthew 24:30-31 about "the SON (of) man coming on the clouds (of) HEAVEN with power and great glory. And He-will-send-out His ANGELS".
The Greek word for "ANGELS" [aggelos 32 in Greek] is only used 2 times in Matthew 24: only in those 2 passages.
In Matthew 24:30-31 the SON is said to be coming on the clouds of HEAVEN, and "He-will-send-out His ANGELS" (Matthew 24:31).
In Acts 3, it is written about the Lord (the Father), and that He may send out the SON, as it is written: "times (of) refreshing may-come from (the) presence (of) the Lord, and He-may-send-out the Christ" (Acts 3:21).
Both the ANGELS and the SON are described as being sent out by someone else, and ultimately that would be the FATHER. Could this be a reason why the Father would be the only One to know the day and hour as He would be the One deciding ultimately when to send them?
No one knows about that day and hour... specifically or also generally?
Jesus said in Matthew 24:36: "But no-one KNOWS about that DAY and HOUR".
Jesus indicated here that the specific "DAY and HOUR" (Matthew 24:36) could not be KNOWN. Jesus did not mention in that particular verse the general timing before that specific timing happens.
No one knows about that day and hour... contrast between that day and the days?
Jesus said in Matthew 24:36: "But no-one KNOWS about that DAY".
Jesus said in the very next verses: "For just-as the DAYS (of) Noah (were), so will-be the coming (of) the Son (of) Man. For as in those DAYS before the flood they-were eating and drinking, marrying and giving-in-marriage, until which DAY Noah entered into the ark, and did not KNOW until the flood came" (Matthew 24:37-39).
Jesus said that "no-one KNOWS about that DAY" (Matthew 24:36) and in the next verses may have contrasted this with "the DAYS" (Matthew 24:37) of Noah that people would have known, but the exact "DAY Noah entered into the ark" (Matthew 24:38) the people "did not KNOW" (Matthew 24:39).
This may suggest that the DAYS in general before that specific DAY may be known, as "they-were eating and drinking, marrying and giving-in-marriage" (Matthew 24:38), but one would not know when that specific DAY itself comes.
1st century audience and imminence in connection with the coming?
Jesus talked to His 1st century disciples in Matthew 24:36 about "that DAY and HOUR".
The expression "that DAY and HOUR" (Matthew 24:36) would have referred to that DAY and HOUR in which there would be His "COMING" (Matthew 24:37), as Jesus explained in the very next verse what He meant by "that DAY and HOUR" (Matthew 24:36) using the conjunction "FOR", saying: "FOR just-as the days (of) Noah (were), so will-be THE COMING [parousia 3952 in Greek] (of) THE SON (of) MAN" (Matthew 24:37).
This specific Greek word for "COMING" [parousia 3952 in Greek] was only used 1 time earlier in Matthew 24 as it was written about "THE COMING [parousia 3952 in Greek] (of) THE SON (of) MAN" (Matthew 24:27).
Jesus would have specified the general timing before this would happen, saying a few verses later to His 1st century disciples that "when YOU-see all these (things), YOU know that (it) is NEAR, at (the) doors. Truly I-say (to) YOU that this generation by-no-means will-pass-away until all these (things) take-place" (Matthew 24:33-34).
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