1st century imminence in the Bible of the return of the Lord?
1st century imminence in the Bible of the return of the Lord?
The same Greek words that are used in the various passages will be CAPITALIZED.
The RETURN of the Lord could have been apprehended as imminent in the 1st century according to the Bible. The nature of that "RETURN" will not be addressed here.
There is only 1 passage in the Bible in which the specific term for "TO-RETURN" (hupostrephó 5290 in Greek) or "RETURN" (epanelthein 1880 in Greek) is used to describe the coming of the Lord, and this passage can be found in Luke 19.
It is written in Luke 19: "(A) certain well-born man traveled to (a) distant country to-receive (a) kingdom (for) himself, and TO-RETURN (hüpostrepsai 5290 in Greek). And having-called ten (of) his (own) slaves, he-gave them ten minas and said to them, ‘Do-business while I-am-coming’. But his citizens were-hating him, and they-sent-forth (a) delegation after him, saying, ‘We-do not want this (one) to-be-king over us’. And it-came-about at his RETURN (epanelthein 1880 in Greek), having-received the kingdom, that he-said (that) these slaves (to) whom he-had-given the money (should) be-called (to) him in-order-that he-might-come-to-know what they gained-through-doing-business" (Luke 19:12-15).
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